The kinslaying of Aqualonde, the first great evil of Middle-Earth by the Children of Illuvatar, is often attributed to the Noldor and the curse of mandos was a direct result thereof.
In the Silmarillion it is stated that 'When he [Feanor] judged that his strength was enough, he went to the Havens of the Swans and began to man the ships that were there and to take them away by force. But the Teleri withstood him, and cast many of the Noldor into the sea. Then Swords were drawn, and a bitter fight was fought upon the hips..."
Form the sequence it can be inferred that:
1. The Noldor started taking the ships by force. I presume here that this means without permission;
2. The Teleri withstood and threw the Noldor overboard;
3. Only then did the Noldor draw their sword and the real fight start.
So can the Noldor alone be held to blame for the rape of the havens? True it is that they were wrong to try to appropriate the ships which weren't there own, but why are the Teleri held blameless in this when it is very probable that they were the ones to draw 'first blood'? I must say that I am a bit perplexed especially when we consider how the Valar judged Feanor previously, when the malice of Melkor was discovered after his released from Mandos. While the truth was discovered, Feanor was punished as well for his part.
So is it fair that the the Teleri are absolved of their part in this the more so when it seems that the Teleri were in Aman, but did not really 'belong' there in the sense that they did not take part in the event there such as the seasonal thanksgiving to Eru (cue the Darkening of Valinor where the Teleri did not attend the great feast of Manwe).